I am ashamed that I hadn’t reasoned this through given all the rubbish digital services have pulled with “purchases” being lies.

  • Stuka@lemmy.world
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    11 months ago

    I guess you can’t steal anything when you just decide to limit the definition of the word.

    But if we’re in reality and using the way words are actually defined then yes you can steal something intangible, and no it does not require someone to be deprived of something.

    • Burn_The_Right@lemmy.world
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      11 months ago

      I’m not going to look up every state, but the Penal Code in some states explicitly define theft as:

      A person commits an offense if he unlawfully appropriates property with intent to deprive the owner of property.

      So, I think it is reasonable to include intent to deprive as part of the definition.

      • Stuka@lemmy.world
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        11 months ago

        You do understand the difference between penal code and the definition of a word, no? Surely the reason why the two are not at all even slightly interchangeable is plainly clear to anyone of reasonable intelligence.

      • Stuka@lemmy.world
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        11 months ago

        To selectively focus on one small sliver of the definition of the word, ignoring the full meaning of the word and the context to push your agenda? Smells like propaganda.

        • merc@sh.itjust.works
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          11 months ago

          The entire definition matters. There’s already a term for “copyright infringement” it’s “copyright infringement”. Pretending it’s theft is just a trick the copyright cartels are using to try to make it seem like a serious crime that has existed for millennia instead of a relatively new rule imposed in the last few centuries by the government, then made ridiculous by the entertainment cartel.