Would there be a reason to cast a higher level version of a spell if there is no difference between it and it’s lower level version?

For instance:

Speak With Animals II seems to be the same as Speak With Animals I. There are other examples with other spells, but is there a reason to cast the different versions? Cost seems the same, effect seems the same…

  • ono@lemmy.caEnglish
    20·
    1 year ago

    Yes: If you’re out of spell slots at the base level, but have higher level spell slots remaining.

    It’s also possible that upcasting makes your spell more resistant to an enemy’s Counterspell, depending on how Larian implemented the mechanics. I believe this would follow 5e RAW, but I haven’t tested it in this game.

    Edit: Rephrased for clarity.

      • ono@lemmy.caEnglish
        2·
        1 year ago

        I’m not talking about upcasting Counterspell, but upcasting some other spell to make it less likely for a Counterspell against it to succeed.

    • s12English
      2·
      1 year ago

      I thought RAW couunterspell ignores if a spell has been upcasted. I remember something about it only taking the original spell level.

      • ono@lemmy.caEnglish
        4·
        1 year ago

        The Player’s Handbook says this:

        When a spellcaster casts a spell using a slot that is of a higher level than the spell, the spell assumes the higher level for that casting.

        Counterspell’s description says nothing to override this.