S=sum of (-1)^n/n from 1 to infty

For why I named the post as so, here’s why

spoiler

  • wisha@lemmy.ml
    4·
    6 months ago
    spoiler

    ln(2) because the Taylor series for ln(1+x) evaluated at x=1 is exactly this series.

    Good one. Thanks for posting!

    • siriusmart@lemmy.worldOPM
      3·
      6 months ago

      yup thats the intended solution, im not really familiar with taylor series yet, but maybe for a person who knows taylor series would be able to see it right away