Pope Francis has formally approved allowing priests to bless same-sex couples, with a new document explaining a radical change in Vatican policy by insisting that people seeking God’s love and mercy shouldn’t be subject to “an exhaustive moral analysis” to receive it.

The document from the Vatican’s doctrine office, released Monday, elaborates on a letter Francis sent to two conservative cardinals that was published in October. In that preliminary response, Francis suggested such blessings could be offered under some circumstances if they didn’t confuse the ritual with the sacrament of marriage.

The new document repeats that rationale and elaborates on it, reaffirming that marriage is a lifelong sacrament between a man and a woman. And it stresses that blessings should not be conferred at the same time as a civil union, using set rituals or even with the clothing and gestures that belong in a wedding.

But it says requests for such blessings should not be denied full stop. It offers an extensive definition of the term “blessing” in Scripture to insist that people seeking a transcendent relationship with God and looking for his love and mercy should not be subject to “an exhaustive moral analysis” as a precondition for receiving it.

  • SSUPII
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    11 months ago

    It’s not disingenious. By the official scriptures, a religious marriage is between a man and a woman. A change like the current one needs already to be accepted by the highest cardinals, that have been in history notoriously fundamentalist.

    A religious marriage is still not allowed. But the receiving of an “informal” blessing for future happiness and prosperity now is.

    This is a necessary step to slowly allow more, that will come with the slow redefining and adaptation to modern times of the scriptures.

    • rah@feddit.uk
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      11 months ago

      adaptation to modern times of the scriptures

      The scriptures don’t adapt, only their interpretation.

      • SSUPII
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        11 months ago

        I think I covered this with “redefining”

      • Ranvier
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        11 months ago

        That’s untrue, scriptures have been adapted many many times. There’s no one agreed upon definition of what the Bible even is, varying significantly between different sects of Christianity, and even more as we broaden to other Abrahamic religions. There’s near endless variations of the different texts. Translation, copying, and selection of which texts to include in a scripture is inevitably bound up in interpretations, they’re inseparable. New ideas, biases, agendas, and shifts in meaning will work their way into the translation or copying of older texts or what sources to derive the translations from. Words don’t stay the same over time in any language and are constantly shifting in meanings.

        Now some religious people may say, God inspires the people who select what religious texts to use, their copying, and their translations, to ensure perfect unchanging meaning over time. But outside of invoking miracles this is an impossibility. But this is what people who take a literal interpretation of the Bible believe.

        Barring miracles though, start with development and history section below if interested, but there’s countless opportunities for the scriptures to have changed, and they are still changing. There’s no way they couldn’t, language itself wouldn’t let it stay static no matter how much effort is put in to it, not even thinking of all the other factors and agendas that have changed them or what they even consist of many times over thousands of years. There’s no one definitive Bible that sprang fully formed out of some vacuum, and even if that somehow occured it’d have to drift overtime with language itself.

        https://en.m.wikipedia.org/wiki/Bible

        • rah@feddit.uk
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          11 months ago

          scriptures have been adapted many many times

          We’re using the word “adapted” in different ways. There may be no authoritative bible text but texts which are considered to be bibles don’t change in response to their environment. They may be rewritten or translated but the originals are still the originals.

          • Ranvier
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            11 months ago

            No I’m using it the same way. What I’m saying is there is no such thing as an “original” Bible text, and even if there was people don’t all agree what those texts should be or which versions of those texts to begin from. And even if they did there’d be no way to perfectly preserve their meaning over the many of thousands of years they developed. And the re interpretations at every step along the way will influence how they get passed down and rewritten. Our current versions of all the many different religious texts are all a part of a long process of evolution, some even with common ancestors. Meanings, connotations, words, passages, entire books, and all sorts of things change at every step for many different reasons. They didn’t just appear suddenly out of nowhere. Many started even as an oral tradition.

            • rah@feddit.uk
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              11 months ago

              there is no such thing as an “original” Bible text

              I never said there was. And the existence of more than one accepted scripture doesn’t contradict what I said. Each of those scriptures will not adapt to its environment.

              there’d be no way to perfectly preserve their meaning over the many of thousands of years they developed.

              Again, we’re talking about different things. You’re talking about long periods of time where human civilisation develops, where scriptures are translated, reinterpreted, etc. into new scriptures. I’m saying that the King James Bible of the 1950s was the same King James Bible of the 1970s and didn’t adapt in response to the civil rights movement of the 1960s.

              • Ranvier
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                11 months ago

                The king James Bible of 1611? The version specifically made to emphasize the divine rights and absolute authority of kings? Sure sounds a lot like the text adapting to the times to me. And do you understand the meanings and context of English from the 17th century? The answer is no, no one does perfectly, the meaning of that text to you will be different to someone reading in the 17th century than to you because the language has changed. Experts could make surmises based on other writings at the time. Ultimately though newer versions will need to be made, that will inevitably be bound up in the current religious interpretations and linguistics background of the one doing that. The texts change in response to our interpretation over time, they don’t sit still, it’s impossible. They are all an ongoing evolution that has been and is still happening.

                • rah@feddit.uk
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                  11 months ago

                  newer versions

                  So not the same scriptures then.

                  The texts change in response to our interpretation over time

                  New texts being created is not the same thing as changing texts. People don’t go around with a pen and update pages.

                  • Ranvier
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                    11 months ago

                    They do change, otherwise we’d have the exact same Bible as we did a thousand years ago which isn’t the case. And if you read a Bible from a thousand years ago, it no longer means the same thing as it did to someone from a thousand years ago. If the hill you want to die on is, the shape of the letters on the page of a particular version’s pages stay the same over time. Then fine. But a scripture is made of language which has to change over time. So for any practical purposes the texts are changing over time. Take any cursory examination at the history of religious texts including the Bible and you’ll see morphing over time for tons of different reasons. Politics often involved! And our current interpretations, linguistics, and cultural understandings and contexts will absolutely inform how the Bible and any religious text (or any text for that matter) continues to change over time, just as it always has.

    • voluble@lemmy.world
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      11 months ago

      I don’t know if you’re a Catholic or not, I just want to say more generally - I don’t see how any Catholic, including the pope, has the right to opine on the finer points of official scriptures while priests are raping children and the church covers it up.

      • SSUPII
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        11 months ago

        The Pope is not a global censuring big brother. You have to point to your state/country’s Christian representation if it has any power in the media or politics.

        You might also want to generalize that a priest of any religion can be problematic.

        • voluble@lemmy.world
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          11 months ago

          Nobody should be raping children. Roman Catholic priests have done this, are doing this, and the Roman Catholic church has a long and ongoing history of covering it up. If the head of the Roman Catholic church fails to stop it, they’re blameworthy.

          Something a pope could easily promise, but never will:

          “We acknowledge our church has a history of sexual assault against children. Our church has sought to obscure this history of abuse. This was wrong, is wrong, and needs to be corrected. Sexual assault and abuses of power in the church are unacceptable and will no longer be tolerated. The church commits to fully funding local law enforcement investigations into all allegations of sexual assault by church staff, and disclosing any information the church may have that is relevant to those investigations. All victims must be heard. With victim consent, their stories will be recorded in a centralized, public, transparent record not administrated or controlled by the church in any way.”

          Any church that isn’t afraid of raking in money in envelopes, but is afraid of making a commitment like the above, is a problem, yep, I agree. There’s no excuse. Saying the pope doesn’t have the power to do this is mealymouthed and also, incorrect.

    • FfaerieOxide@kbin.social
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      11 months ago

      By the official scriptures, a religious marriage is between a man and a woman.

      By the official scriptures, how much should I sell my daughter for to slavers?

      • SSUPII
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        11 months ago

        What is wrong with you

        • FfaerieOxide@kbin.social
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          11 months ago

          Apparently alot, as the book we are seemingly relying on to effect our moral scaffolding says we have all “come short of the glory of God”, in addition to stating slavery is ok while two dudes getting married is not.

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            11 months ago

            This has nothing to do with the current topic.

            • FfaerieOxide@kbin.social
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              11 months ago

              Doesn’t it? We’re justifying discrimination because apparently this book says so.

              If it’s important enough to treat our queer siblings poorly over surely we should listen to everything this “scripture” has to say?

              Real quick, can you tell me and this pile of rocks what fibres your clothes are made of?

              • SSUPII
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                11 months ago

                Pinpoint where in this discussion discrimination is being justified. I stated a fact, not an appreciation to that fact.

                • FfaerieOxide@kbin.social
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                  11 months ago

                  That fact is being pointed to to engender and perpetuate discrimination, and you are “pointing to fact” to defend the pope against accurate charges of disingenuity in the face of his and wider society’s continued perpetuation of that harm.

                  At best you are deflecting, but you are absolutely defending the continued harm done when you justify the pope’s position as adherence to scripture.