Linguistic body has relaxed rules on use of apostrophe to show possession, not traditionally correct in German
Archived version: https://archive.ph/Ff8GY
Oh they mentioned Verein Deutscher Sprache who suggests words like “Klapprechner” but forgot to mention a much bigger online movement to prevent anglicisms where we all speak Zangendeutsch. Just come over to !ich_iel@feddit.org
They didn’t even come up with the word it’s a calque. First the Prussians came and said our language is an obstacle to education, now they’re plundering our dictionary. And to top it all off they’re not even bold enough to propose this one.
Brb, going to brew myself some itch apple tea.
While I see some quality in an Ackersnaaker, I’d keep with the Zangendeutsch movement and call it a Laufisprechi.
Interesting. In English, I’d say the “idiot’s apostrophe” is an apostrophe that’s used for a non-possessive, non-contraction ‘s’.
E.g., “The Johnson’s are going to the mall to buy pizza’s.”
Doesn’t “idiot’s” in this example show possession?
And the “Johnson’s” is a plural?
Or do I misunderstand what
you’re trying to saysaying?In English, apostrophes are only used for possession and to indicate missing letters (usually vowels), as in contractions.
My example showed apostrophes incorrectly being used for non-possessive plural nouns. I used a proper noun (“Johnson”) and a common one (“pizza”) to better illustrate my point.
Thanks.
Wanted to make sure I was getting what you were puttin’ down.
Yea, the rules are pretty clear, at least I always thought so.
Kind of telling that so many people can’t be bothered to understand it.
It’s not always that simple…
Nah, it’s pretty simple. Pronouns don’t use apostrophes for possession; they only use them for contractions like “it’s”.
